I know it must BUT how? How does a reverse brake bleeding tool work IF you have a 10#, 2#, residual valve inline or a proportioning valve inline, etc. ? Thanks!
The valves aren't simply one way valves they just hold a low residual pressure, so I'd expect that logically anything in excess of that residual would be passed through. If not the brakes wouldn't release in normal use. Seems logical to me. Not familiar with the operation of that tool, but it must apply some pressure? Chris
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